题目内容
已知数列{an}满足a1=0,a2=2,且对任意m、n∈N*都有
a2m-1+a2n-1=2am+n-1+2(m-n)2
(Ⅰ)求a3,a5;
(Ⅱ)设bn=a2n+1-a2n-1(n∈N*),证明:{bn}是等差数列;
(Ⅲ)设cn=(an+1-an)qn-1(q≠0,n∈N*),求数列{cn}的前n项和Sn.
a2m-1+a2n-1=2am+n-1+2(m-n)2
(Ⅰ)求a3,a5;
(Ⅱ)设bn=a2n+1-a2n-1(n∈N*),证明:{bn}是等差数列;
(Ⅲ)设cn=(an+1-an)qn-1(q≠0,n∈N*),求数列{cn}的前n项和Sn.
6,20,
,Sn=![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/201408231435205421275.gif)
,Sn=
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/201408231435205421275.gif)
解:(1)由题意,零m=2,n-1,可得a3=2a2-a1+2=6
再令m=3,n=1,可得a5=2a3-a1+8=20………………………………2分
(2)当n∈N*时,由已知(以n+2代替m)可得
a2n+3+a2n-1=2a2n+1+8
于是[a2(n+1)+1-a2(n+1)-1]-(a2n+1-a2n-1)=8
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520573402.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520573402.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520573402.gif)
即 bn+1-bn=8
所以{bn}是公差为8的等差数列………………………………………………5分
(3)由(1)(2)解答可知{bn}是首项为b1=a3-a1=6,公差为8的等差数列
则bn=8n-2,即a2n+=1-a2n-1=8n-2
另由已知(令m=1)可得
an=
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520604470.gif)
那么an+1-an=
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520682506.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520713398.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520573402.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143520573402.gif)
=
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521275416.gif)
=2n
于是cn=2nqn-1.
当q=1时,Sn=2+4+6+……+2n=n(n+1)
当q≠1时,Sn=2·q0+4·q1+6·q2+……+2n·qn-1.
两边同乘以q,可得
qSn=2·q1+4·q2+6·q3+……+2n·qn.
上述两式相减得
(1-q)Sn=2(1+q+q2+……+qn-1)-2nqn
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521290398.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521322401.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521322401.gif)
=2·
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521337331.gif)
=2·
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521368708.gif)
所以Sn=2·
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/20140823143521384757.gif)
综上所述,Sn=
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/pic2/upload/papers/20140823/201408231435205421275.gif)
![](http://thumb.zyjl.cn/images/loading.gif)
练习册系列答案
相关题目