题目内容

14.设数列{an}是首项为1,公比为q(q≠-1)的等比数列,若$\left\{{\frac{1}{{{a_n}+{a_{n+1}}}}}\right\}$是等差数列,则$(\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_3})+(\frac{1}{a_3}+\frac{1}{a_4})+…+(\frac{1}{{{a_{2015}}}}+\frac{1}{{{a_{2016}}}})$=(  )
A.4024B.4026C.4028D.4030

分析 由于$\left\{{\frac{1}{{{a_n}+{a_{n+1}}}}}\right\}$是等差数列,可得$\frac{2}{{a}_{1}(q+{q}^{2})}$=$\frac{1}{{a}_{1}(1+q)}$+$\frac{1}{{a}_{1}({q}^{2}+{q}^{3})}$,又a1=1,解得q,进而得出.

解答 解:∵$\left\{{\frac{1}{{{a_n}+{a_{n+1}}}}}\right\}$是等差数列,∴2$\frac{1}{{a}_{2}+{a}_{3}}$=$\frac{1}{{a}_{1}+{a}_{2}}$+$\frac{1}{{a}_{3}+{a}_{4}}$,即$\frac{2}{{a}_{1}(q+{q}^{2})}$=$\frac{1}{{a}_{1}(1+q)}$+$\frac{1}{{a}_{1}({q}^{2}+{q}^{3})}$,又a1=1,化为:q=1.
∴公差d=$\frac{1}{2}$-$\frac{1}{2}$=0,首项=2,
∴$(\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_3})+(\frac{1}{a_3}+\frac{1}{a_4})+…+(\frac{1}{{{a_{2015}}}}+\frac{1}{{{a_{2016}}}})$=2×2014=4028.
故选:C.

点评 本题考查了等差数列与等比数列的通项公式,考查了推理能力与计算能力,属于中档题.

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