题目内容
(2012?长清区模拟)
+
+
+
+
+
=
.
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 12 |
| 1 |
| 20 |
| 1 |
| 30 |
| 1 |
| 42 |
| 6 |
| 7 |
| 6 |
| 7 |
分析:每相邻的两个分数,它们的分母被分解后,都含有相同的因数,把分母改为因数相乘的形式:
=
;
=
,…;再把每个分数变形为分数相减的形式:
=
-
;
=
-
;…;
那么整个算式可变为:
+
+
+
+
+
=(1-
)+(
-
)+…(
-
)=1-
=
.
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 2×3 |
| 1 |
| 12 |
| 1 |
| 3×4 |
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 3 |
| 1 |
| 12 |
| 1 |
| 3 |
| 1 |
| 4 |
那么整个算式可变为:
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 12 |
| 1 |
| 20 |
| 1 |
| 30 |
| 1 |
| 42 |
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 3 |
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 7 |
| 1 |
| 7 |
| 6 |
| 7 |
解答:解:
+
+
+
+
+
,
=(1-
)+(
-
)+…(
-
),
=1-
=
.
故答案为:
.
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 12 |
| 1 |
| 20 |
| 1 |
| 30 |
| 1 |
| 42 |
=(1-
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 2 |
| 1 |
| 3 |
| 1 |
| 6 |
| 1 |
| 7 |
=1-
| 1 |
| 7 |
| 6 |
| 7 |
故答案为:
| 6 |
| 7 |
点评:解决此题的关键是把每个分数变形为分数相减的形式,考查了学生简算的能力.
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