题目内容

19.计算:$\frac{49}{8}$-$\frac{1}{2}$+$\frac{42}{5}$-$\frac{1}{3}$+$\frac{31}{8}$-$\frac{1}{6}$+$\frac{58}{5}$=29
$\frac{1}{6}$×(3.85÷$\frac{5}{18}$-3.6+7.15×3.6)=6
$\frac{1×3×24+2×6×48+3×9×72}{1×2×4+2×4×8+3×6×12}$=9.

分析 (1)先算同分母分数,再算加减法即可求解;
(2)将除法变为乘法,根据乘法分配律简便计算;
(3)根据积不变规律得到原式=$\frac{1×2×4×9+2×4×8×9+3×6×12×9}{1×2×4+2×4×8+3×6×12}$,再根据乘法分配律变形,最后约分即可求解.

解答 解:(1)$\frac{49}{8}$-$\frac{1}{2}$+$\frac{42}{5}$-$\frac{1}{3}$+$\frac{31}{8}$-$\frac{1}{6}$+$\frac{58}{5}$
=($\frac{49}{8}$+$\frac{31}{8}$)+($\frac{42}{5}$+$\frac{58}{5}$)-($\frac{1}{2}$+$\frac{1}{3}$+$\frac{1}{6}$)
=10+20-1
=29
(2)$\frac{1}{6}$×(3.85÷$\frac{5}{18}$-3.6+7.15×3.6)
=$\frac{1}{6}$×(3.85×3.6-3.6+7.15×3.6)
=$\frac{1}{6}$×(3.85-1+7.15)×3.6
=$\frac{1}{6}$×10×3.6
=6
(3)$\frac{1×3×24+2×6×48+3×9×72}{1×2×4+2×4×8+3×6×12}$
=$\frac{1×2×4×9+2×4×8×9+3×6×12×9}{1×2×4+2×4×8+3×6×12}$
=$\frac{(1×2×4+2×4×8+3×6×12)×9}{1×2×4+2×4×8+3×6×12}$
=9
故答案为:29,6,9.

点评 分数巧算就是熟能生巧的过程,综合运用乘法分配律,分数化小数,小数化分数以及带分数化假分数、带分数拆分等方法达到巧算的目的.

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